Wednesday, May 28, 2025

Proof that, ∀n∈ℕ, there are n consecutive composite numbers

Prove that, for every natural number n, there are n consecutive composite numbers.

Proof: For every natural number $n$, there are $n$ consecutive composite numbers.


Step 1: Construct the sequence.

Consider the number:

$$ N = (n+1)! $$

where $(n+1)!$ is the factorial of $n+1$, meaning:

$$ (n+1)! = (n+1) \cdot n \cdot (n-1) \cdots 2 \cdot 1 $$

Step 2: Build the sequence of $n$ consecutive numbers:

$$ N + 2, N + 3, N + 4, \dots, N + (n+1) $$

This is a sequence of $n$ consecutive numbers (from $N + 2$ to $N + (n+1)$).

Step 3: Prove each number is composite.

Consider any number in the sequence:

$$ N + k \quad \text{where} \quad k = 2, 3, 4, \dots, n+1 $$

Note that $(n+1)!$ is divisible by $k$ because $k \leq n+1$ and the factorial contains every integer up to $n+1$ as factors.

Therefore:

$$ N + k = (n+1)! + k $$

is divisible by $k$ (since $(n+1)!$ is divisible by $k$).

Check whether this number is composite:

  • It is greater than $k$ (because $(n+1)! \geq (n+1) \cdot n \cdot \dots \cdot 2 \cdot 1$, which is obviously larger than $k$ for all $n \geq 1$).
  • It has $k$ as a divisor other than 1 and itself.

Thus, every number in the sequence is composite.

Step 4: Conclusion.

For every natural number $n$, there exists a sequence of $n$ consecutive composite numbers — specifically the numbers:

$$ (n+1)! + 2, (n+1)! + 3, \dots, (n+1)! + (n+1) $$

This proves the statement. $\blacksquare$

Bertrand postulate proof sketch

Prove that ∀n∈ℕ(n>1⟹∃p∈ℙ(n<p<2n)).

Below is a classical proof of

$$ \forall n\in\Bbb N,\;n>1\;\Longrightarrow\;\exists\,p\in\Bbb P\text{ with }n<p<2n, $$

first conjectured by Bertrand in 1845 and proved (independently) by Chebyshev in 1852. It is often called Bertrand’s postulate.


1. Chebyshev’s θ-function

Define

$$ \theta(x)\;=\;\sum_{\substack{p\le x\\p\;\text{prime}}}\ln p. $$

Chebyshev showed by completely elementary means (bounding factorials via products) that there are absolute constants $A,B>0$ such that for all $x\ge2$,

$$ A\,x\;\le\;\theta(x)\;\le\;B\,x. $$

One may take for instance

$$ 0.92\,x\;\le\;\theta(x)\;\le\;1.11\,x, $$

for every $x\ge2$. (The proof is a straightforward—but somewhat lengthy—analysis of the prime‐power factors of $n!$.)


2. From θ to “a prime in $(n,2n)$”

Observe that

$$ \theta(2n)\;-\;\theta(n)\;=\;\sum_{\,n< p\le 2n}\ln p. $$

If there were no prime in the open interval $(n,2n]$, then $\theta(2n)-\theta(n)=0$. But by Chebyshev’s bounds,

$$ \theta(2n)-\theta(n)\;\ge\;0.92\,(2n)\;-\;1.11\,n \;=\;(1.84-1.11)\,n \;=\;0.73\,n \;>\;0 \quad(\forall n>1). $$

Hence

$$ \sum_{\,n<p\le 2n}\ln p>0, $$

so there must be at least one prime $p\in(n,2n]$. This completes the proof.∎


Historical remarks

  • Chebyshev’s original 1852 proof bounds factorials $\;n!\approx\sqrt{2\pi n}\,(n/e)^n$ from above and below elementarily, then translates those bounds into $\;A\,x\le\theta(x)\le B\,x$.
  • In 1932, Erdős found a shorter “combinatorial” proof using properties of the central binomial coefficient $\binom{2n}{n}$.
  • The statement is often referred to as Bertrand’s postulate, though it is now a theorem.

Proof that ∀n∈ℕ(n>2⟹∃p∈ℙ(n<p<n!))

Prove that, for every natural number n greater than 2, there is a prime number between n and n!.

Proof: For every natural number $n > 2$, there is a prime number between $n$ and $n!$.


Step 1: Understand the problem.

We are asked to show that for any integer $n > 2$, there exists at least one prime $p$ such that:

$$ n < p < n! $$


Step 2: Use a classical approach based on divisor arguments.

Consider the number:

$$ N = n! - 1 $$

Let's analyze the prime factors of $N$.


Step 3: Key observation.

  • For any integer $k$ with $2 \leq k \leq n$, $k$ divides $n!$ (by the definition of factorial).
  • But $k$ does not divide $n! - 1$ because:

$$ n! \equiv 0 \pmod{k} \implies n! - 1 \equiv -1 \not\equiv 0 \pmod{k} $$

This means none of the integers $2, 3, \dots, n$ divides $N = n! - 1$.


Step 4: Consequence.

  • Any prime divisor of $N$ must be greater than $n$.

Step 5: Conclusion.

  • $N = n! - 1$ is either prime itself (in which case it's a prime greater than $n$) or composite.
  • If it's composite, it must have a prime factor greater than $n$, since none of the primes $\leq n$ divide it.

Thus, there exists a prime $p > n$ such that $p$ divides $n! - 1$.

Since $n! - 1 < n!$, this prime $p$ satisfies:

$$ n < p < n! $$


Therefore, for every integer $n > 2$, there is a prime number between $n$ and $n!$.


This proof uses an idea similar to Euclid's proof of the infinitude of primes but applied to the interval $(n, n!)$.

Proof that 3,5,7 are the only 3 primes separated by 2

Suppose that p, p + 2, and p + 4 are prime numbers. Prove that p = 3.

Proof that if $p$, $p + 2$, and $p + 4$ are all prime numbers, then $p = 3$.


Step 1: Understand the problem

We are told that $p$, $p+2$, and $p+4$ are all prime numbers, and asked to prove that the only possible value for $p$ is $3$.


Step 2: Consider modulo 3 behavior

Any integer is congruent to one of 0, 1, or 2 modulo 3.

Check how this applies to the numbers $p$, $p+2$, and $p+4$.


Step 3: Check modulo 3 cases

  • If $p \equiv 0 \pmod{3}$, then $p = 3$ is the only prime satisfying this (since 3 is the only prime divisible by 3).

Test it:

  • $p = 3$
  • $p+2 = 5$ (prime)
  • $p+4 = 7$ (prime)

✔️ Works.

Check whether any other options exist.


  • If $p \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$, then

  • $p+2 \equiv 3 \equiv 0 \pmod{3}$

This means $p+2$ is divisible by 3.

The only prime divisible by 3 is 3 itself, but $p+2 > p \geq 1$, so $p+2 > 3$, and the only possibility is if $p+2=3$, leading to $p=1$, but 1 is not prime.

So in this case, $p+2$ would be composite for any $p \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$ with $p > 3$.

Contradicts the assumption that $p+2$ is prime.


  • If $p \equiv 2 \pmod{3}$, then

  • $p+4 \equiv (2+4) \equiv 6 \equiv 0 \pmod{3}$

This means $p+4$ is divisible by 3.

Again, unless $p+4=3$ (impossible because $p+4 > p \geq 2$), this means $p+4$ is composite.

Contradicts the assumption that $p+4$ is prime.


Step 4: Conclusion

The only possible value where neither $p+2$ nor $p+4$ are divisible by 3 is when $p\equiv 0\pmod{3}$, i.e., $p=3$.

Test:

  • $3, 5, 7$ — all prime ✔️

No other $p$ works.

Therefore, the only possible prime number $p$ such that $p$, $p+2$, and $p+4$ are all primes is

$$ p = 3 $$

✔️ QED.

Smallest prime where the successor of the product of primes up to it is not prime

Find a prime number p such that the number (2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 7 ⋅⋅⋅ p) + 1 is not prime.

Let's break this problem down step by step.

Problem restatement:

Find a prime number $p$ such that the number

$$ (2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdots p) + 1 $$

is not prime.

This is the product of all primes up to $p$ (the primorial of $p$) plus 1. You're being asked for the smallest prime $p$ where this is not prime (i.e., composite).


Step 1: Test Small Values of $p$

Let's compute $(2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots p) + 1$ for successive primes until it's not prime.

  1. $p = 2$:

$$ 2 + 1 = 3 \text{ (prime)} $$

  1. $p = 3$:

$$ 2 \cdot 3 + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7 \text{ (prime)} $$

  1. $p = 5$:

$$ 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 + 1 = 30 + 1 = 31 \text{ (prime)} $$

  1. $p = 7$:

$$ 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 + 1 = 210 + 1 = 211 \text{ (prime)} $$

  1. $p = 11$:

$$ 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdot 11 + 1 = 2310 + 1 = 2311 \text{ (test primality)} $$

Test 2311:

  • Not divisible by 13 (2311/13 = 177.76)
  • Not divisible by 17, 19, ... (test shows 2311 is prime)
  1. $p = 13$:

$$ 2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdot 11 \cdot 13 + 1 = 30030 + 1 = 30031 $$

Test 30031: Check divisibility:

  • 30031 divided by 59:

$$ 30031 / 59 = 509 $$

Check:

$$ 59 \cdot 509 = 30031 \text{ ✅ } $$

So 30031 is composite.

✅ Therefore, the smallest prime $p$ such that $(2 \cdot 3 \cdot 5 \cdots p) + 1$ is not prime is

$$ \boxed{13} $$

Thursday, May 1, 2025

Denumerability of Subsets

Given an enumeration \( a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n, \ldots \) of a denumerable set \( A \), and an enumeration \( b_1, b_2, \ldots, b_n, \ldots \) of a denumerable set \( B \), we can enumerate \( A \cup B \) in the order \( a_1, b_1, a_2, b_2, \ldots, a_n, b_n, \ldots \). Write a more general version of this statement for the union of arbitrarily many denumerable sets.

More generally, one shows:

Theorem.
If \(\{A_m\}_{m\in\mathbb N}\) is a countable family of countable (denumerable) sets, then
\[ \bigcup_{m=1}^\infty A_m \] is itself countable.

Proof sketch (by explicit enumeration).

  1. For each \(m\in\mathbb N\), choose an enumeration

\[ A_m = \{\,a_{m,1},\,a_{m,2},\,a_{m,3},\dots\}. \]

  1. Recall that \(\mathbb N\times\mathbb N\) is countable. Fix any bijection

\[ \pi\colon \mathbb N \;\longrightarrow\;\mathbb N\times\mathbb N, \quad \pi(k) = (m(k),\,n(k)). \]

  1. Define a new sequence \((c_k)_{k=1}^\infty\) by

\[ c_k \;=\; a_{\,m(k),\,n(k)}. \]

  1. Then \(\{c_1,c_2,c_3,\dots\}\) lists every element of \(\bigcup_{m}A_m\)

(possibly with repetitions), showing that \(\bigcup_m A_m\) is countable.


Equivalently, if you prefer a “diagonal” style ordering without naming a particular pairing function, you can say:

  1. List all pairs \((m,n)\in\mathbb N\times\mathbb N\) in a single sequence, for example by moving along the diagonals

\[ (1,1),\;(1,2),(2,1),\;(1,3),(2,2),(3,1),\;\dots \]

  1. Whenever \((m,n)\) appears in that list, write down the \(n\)-th element of \(A_m\), namely \(a_{m,n}\).

Because every pair \((m,n)\) will eventually appear, every element of every \(A_m\) will be listed. Hence a countable union of countable sets is countable.

The set of all infinite subsets of \( \mathbb{N} \) cannot be denumerable; show this by showing that the set of all finite subsets of \( \mathbb{N} \) is denumerable, and then applying the above theorem.

First, partition the collection of all finite subsets of \(\mathbb{N}\) by their cardinality. For each \(k\in\mathbb{N}\), let \[ \mathcal F_k = \bigl\{\,F\subseteq\mathbb{N}:\lvert F\rvert = k\bigr\} \] be the family of all \(k\)-element subsets of \(\mathbb{N}\). Then:

  1. Each \(\mathcal F_k\) is denumerable.
    An easy way to see this is to observe that any \(k\)-element subset can be written uniquely as an increasing \(k\)-tuple \[ (n_1,n_2,\dots,n_k) \quad\text{with}\quad n_1<n_2<\cdots<n_k,\quad n_i\in\mathbb{N}. \] The set of all such increasing \(k\)-tuples is a subset of \(\mathbb{N}^k\), and \(\mathbb{N}^k\) is denumerable (e.g.\ by the diagonal‐pairing argument). Hence each \(\mathcal F_k\) is denumerable.

  2. The set of all finite subsets is a countable union of the \(\mathcal F_k\).
    \[ \mathcal F \;=\; \bigl\{\,F\subseteq\mathbb{N}:\lvert F\rvert<\infty\bigr\} = \bigcup_{k=0}^\infty \mathcal F_k. \] By the theorem you just proved, a countable union of denumerable sets is denumerable. Therefore \(\mathcal F\) is denumerable.


Now let \[ \mathcal I = \bigl\{\,X\subseteq\mathbb{N}:\lvert X\rvert=\infty\bigr\} \] be the collection of infinite subsets of \(\mathbb{N}\). Notice that every subset of \(\mathbb{N}\) is either finite or infinite, so \[ \mathcal P(\mathbb{N}) \;=\; \mathcal F \;\cup\;\mathcal I. \] Suppose, for the sake of contradiction, that \(\mathcal I\) were denumerable. Then \(\mathcal F\) is denumerable (as shown above), so by the union theorem again, \[ \mathcal P(\mathbb{N}) = \mathcal F \cup \mathcal I \] would be a union of two denumerable sets, hence itself denumerable. But this contradicts Cantor’s theorem that \(\mathcal P(\mathbb{N})\) is uncountable. Therefore our assumption was false, and \(\mathcal I\) cannot be denumerable. In other words, the family of all infinite subsets of \(\mathbb{N}\) is uncountable.

Naturals Powerset Uncountable

show that the powerset of the natural numbers is not denumerable

To show that the powerset of the natural numbers \( \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) \) is not denumerable, we aim to prove that it is uncountable—that is, it cannot be placed into a one-to-one correspondence with \( \mathbb{N} \) (the set of natural numbers).


Step-by-step Proof (Using Cantor’s Diagonal Argument)

1. Assume for contradiction:

Suppose \( \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) \) is countable. Then there exists a bijection \[ f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) \] So we can list all subsets of \( \mathbb{N} \) as: \[ f(0), f(1), f(2), \dots \] where each \( f(n) \subseteq \mathbb{N} \).


2. Construct a special subset:

Define a subset \( D \subseteq \mathbb{N} \) by: \[ D = \{ n \in \mathbb{N} \mid n \notin f(n) \} \] This is called the diagonal subset, because its construction resembles Cantor’s diagonalization.


3. Check whether \( D \) appears in the list:

Since we assumed all subsets are listed, \( D \) must be \( f(k) \) for some \( k \in \mathbb{N} \). So consider whether \( k \in D \):

  • If \( k \in D \), then by definition of \( D \), \( k \notin f(k) = D \) ⇒ contradiction.
  • If \( k \notin D \), then \( k \in f(k) = D \) ⇒ contradiction.

In either case, we get a contradiction.


Conclusion:

This contradiction shows our assumption was false. Therefore:

\[ \boxed{\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N}) \text{ is not countable, i.e., not denumerable.}} \]

It is, in fact, uncountably infinite.